INTRODUCTION
This is the third in a series of five post evaluating the statements on baptism in the Heidelberg Catechism (HC) and probing the logic and coherence of those statements and their scriptural support as cited in the HC reference notes. Some statements appear inconsistent with other statements in the HC, or they cite scriptures out of context, or they lack scriptural support, or they appear problematic on other grounds. These posts do not address paedobaptist vs credobaptist arguments, but look only at the internal consistency and coherence of the arguments made in the HC. Questions as to what a sacrament is or how it functions are not addressed.
A slightly modified version of all five posts combined into one paper is available at the following link: The (In)Coherence of the Heidelberg Catechism on Baptism_bv
The teaching on baptism in the HC are contained in Question and Answer 69 through 74, in Lord’s Days 26 and 27. Each post in this series will cover one or more Question and Answer (Q&A) sets. The text of the HC Question and Answer is quoted and discussed, and the HC’s scripture citations are also quoted, using the NASB. Citations are expanded at times to provide context. The text of the HC quoted here are taken from the current Canadian Reformed Church online version.
The critiques on this blog of statements and claims in the Belgic Confession and the Heidelberg Catechism are NOT directed primarily at the original authors of those documents. I believe that the original authors did their best to summarize the main Christian doctrines, based on their concerns and priorities, the extent of their knowledge, and the theological assumptions and paradigms of their time and place. What I am critiquing is the apparent failure of today’s Reformed community to review, update, revise and reform these documents to reflect the current state of knowledge in the various fields of Biblical studies (see also the ABOUT ASKING QUESTIONS page).
Question and Answer 71
71. Question. Where has Christ promised that he will wash us with his blood and Spirit as surely as we are washed with the water of baptism?
Answer. In the institution of baptism, where he says:Therefore go and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit (Mt 28:19). Whoever believes and is baptized will be saved, but whoever does not believe will be condemned (Mk 16:16). This promise is repeated where Scripture calls baptism the washing of rebirth and the washing away of sins (Titus 3:5; Acts 22:16).
Scripture Citations
The Matthew 28:19 citation contains only a command of Jesus, not a promise. It says nothing about blood and spirit washing as claimed in HC Answer 71. The Mark citation also says nothing about blood and spirit washing. That citation does include a promise, i.e. the promise of salvation to those who believe and are baptized – a problematic claim as discussed previously under HC Answer 69 (see Part 1). Note that this text specifies belief before baptism and thus conflicts with HC Answer 74.
HC Question 71 states: “….Christ promised that he will wash us with his blood and Spirit as surely as we are washed with the water of baptism.” The problem with this claim is that neither Christ nor the Scriptures has ever made such a promise. The HC here claims that a future washing with Christ’s blood is promised to those who “are washed (present tense) with the water”, i.e. whoever has been baptized can depend on being washed with Jesus’ blood (!).
The HC’s claims about what is taught in Titus 3:5 and Acts 22:16 are problematic. What does it mean for the HC to say that baptism is the “washing of rebirth” and the “washing away of sins”? How does that differ from the teaching of baptismal regeneration? The two texts cited by the HC do not state what is claimed. One wonders if the HC has read Scripture in error due to carelessness, or if it has deliberately misrepresented Scripture? Why are these two texts not quoted, as are the previous two texts, but only cited? Let us examine what the texts actually say:
Titus 3:5: “He saved us, not on the basis of deeds which we have done in righteousness, but according to His mercy, by the washing of regeneration and renewing by the Holy Spirit, 6 whom He poured out upon us richly through Jesus Christ our Savior,”
Titus 3:5 refers to two actions or effects: the “washing of rebirth” and the “renewing by the Holy Spirit”; both correspond to Jesus explanation of the new birth in John 3:5-8 (see discussion under Q&A 70 in Part 2). Verse 6 clarifies that the Spirit is poured out upon us through Jesus – language that echoes the texts in the Gospels and Acts promising the baptism in the Holy Spirit. Neither water baptism nor water are mentioned in this citation.
Acts 22:16: “ 12 “A certain Ananias, a man who was devout by the standard of the Law, and well spoken of by all the Jews who lived there, 13 came to me, and standing near said to me, ‘Brother Saul, receive your sight!’ And at that very time I looked up at him.14 And he said, ‘The God of our fathers has appointed you to know His will and to see the Righteous One and to hear an utterance from His mouth. 15 For you will be a witness for Him to all men of what you have seen and heard. 16 Now why do you delay? Get up and be baptized, and wash away your sins, calling on His name.’”
Ananias calls Paul “brother”, thus Paul had evidently become a believer before Ananias came to him. Ananias says to Paul (a) “be baptized”, and (b) “wash away your sins calling on His name”. It is not baptism that washes away sins, it is calling on His name in faith that washes away sins. How can the wording of this Question and Answer ever have been so formulated, and not only allowed to stand unaltered over the years, but also subscribed to by countless office-bearers of Reformed churches to the present day?